Quote: Saxon "Standard California law. Civil suit for damages requires "balance of probability" not "beyond reasonable doubt" and does not require a criminal conviction. The most notable example being OJ Simpson. Interestingly they both played for the 49ers (wonder if they both used Johnnie Cochran as their lawyer).'"
Yes I'm aware of each and it's the same in the UK I just query how she can sue him for damages for something that would be a criminal matter and he hasn't been convicted of?
He's either guilty of the crime or he's not and I don't get how someone could be awarded damages for being the victim of something that in the eyes of the law didn't happen?